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Editorial Team
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Asked: 2026-06-04T03:34:13+00:00

We have a huge database with different database schemas for different web applications. For

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We have a huge database with different database schemas for different web applications.
For example: WebApp1 uses Schema1.Tables. WebApp2 uses Schema2.Tables and so on.

Now, I am developing a new web application (WepApp3) which will use Entity Framework 4.3.1. WebApp3 should only be concerned with Schema3 and use only those database object which are part of Schema3. If i create some Entities in WepApp3, How do i migrate these entities to database as schema3.tables? Do i still need to do Initial Migration?

Please help.

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  1. Editorial Team

    It seems to WORK. I started with an existing database. created an mvc app (app1) with couple of models. I then created a schema for this app in database. I specified schema for the models as per your comment. Then I used the power of code based migration script to update the database. Migration script created 2 tables under the new schema without corrupting existing stuff. I noticed EF created __MigrationHistory table with a row with change info.
    Then i created another app, a new schema and repeated the migration process with a little tweak in migration script. The script had code to re-create 2 tables of app1. i deleted that code from script. EF then successfully created new tables under new schema and also created new row in __MigrationHistory table with info about new changes. All existing stuff remain unchanged including data.

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