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Home/ Questions/Q 7891485
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: June 3, 20262026-06-03T06:37:50+00:00 2026-06-03T06:37:50+00:00

When I have something like this: class A { virtual void rat(); }; class

  • 0

When I have something like this:

class A
{
  virtual void rat();
};

class B : public A
{
  virtual void rat() { ; } //implemented!
};

int main(int argc, char **argv)
{
  A *a = new B;
  delete a;
}

I get linker errors:

unless I make the base rat a pure virtual.

However, when I have this:

class A
{
  public:
  void rat();
};

int main(int argc, char **argv)
{
  A a;
}

This compiles fine and doesn’t give me an undefined reference link error unless I explicitly try to call the rat function in my main (a.rat();). What is the rule on unimplemented base class virtual functions which are, however, implemented in a derived class as in the first failing code snippet?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-06-03T06:37:51+00:00Added an answer on June 3, 2026 at 6:37 am

    When both classes define virtual functions, C++ compiler needs to build vtables for both classes A and B. To build A‘s vtable, the compiler needs A::rat() – that is where the reference is coming from.

    When A has no virtual functions, there are no reference to A::rat from anywhere, hence you do not get a compile error.

    As I’m sure you know, you can fix this error by making A::rat a pure virtual, thus providing the needed value for the vtable (in this case, the value is zero).

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