Question

When we have two structs, and one is implicitly convertible to the other, then it seems like the System.Nullable<> versions of the two are also implicitly convertible. Like, if struct A has an implicit conversion to struct B, then A? converts to B? as well.

Here is an example:

struct MyNumber
{
  public readonly int Inner;

  public MyNumber(int i)
  {
    Inner = i;
  }

  public static implicit operator int(MyNumber n)
  {
    return n.Inner;
  }
}

Inside some method:

MyNumber? nmn = new MyNumber(42);
int? covariantMagic = nmn; // works!

In the C# Language Specification Version 4.0 we read that a conversion like this shall exist for “the predefined implicit identity and numeric conversions”.

But is it safe to assume that it will also work for user-defined implicit conversions?

(This question might be related to this bug: http://connect.microsoft.com/VisualStudio/feedback/details/642227/)

Answer 1

But is it safe to assume that it will also work for user-defined implicit conversions?

Yes. From section 6.4.2 of the C# 4 spec:

Given a user-defined conversion operator that convers from a non-nullable value type S to a non-nullable value type T, a lifted conversion operator exists that converts from S? to T?. This lifted conversion operator performs an unwrapping from S? to S followed by the user-defined conversion from S to T, followed by a wrapping from T to T?, except that a null-valued S? converts directly to a null-valued T?.

A lifted conversion operator has the same implicit or explicit classification as its underlying user-defined conversion operator. The term "user-defined conversion" applies to the use of both user-defined and lifted conversion operators.