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Asked: 2026-05-17T21:38:21+00:00

Why ( P ^ Q ) === ( ~P -> Q ) ? How

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Why ( P ^ Q ) === ( ~P -> Q ) ?

How to prove?

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1 Answer

  1. Editorial Team

    No, it’s not: ~P -> Q === P v Q, it is not equivalent to P ^ Q

    One way to prove it is to use a truth table:

    P | Q | P v Q | ~P | ~P -> Q
0   0     0     1       0        
0   1     1     1       1
1   0     1     0       1
1   1     1     1       1
          ^             ^
          +-------------+
       these are equivalent
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