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Home/ Questions/Q 7430631
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 29, 20262026-05-29T09:10:23+00:00 2026-05-29T09:10:23+00:00

I was reading this question Does calling a destructor explicitly destroy an object completely?

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I was reading this question Does calling a destructor explicitly destroy an object completely? where this situation comes up in code.

Object* aWidget = new Widget(); //allocate and construct
aWidget->~Object();             //destroy and DON'T deallocate

From the answers, I undrestand that the memory region is in fact not deallocated in this situation. My question is (more out of curiosity than anything):

How can I delete the memory pointed to by aWidget after the two lines of code above have executed? I would assume calling delete aWidget; would fail because it would try to run the destructor on an already-destructed object. Could you call free(aWidget) or something like that instead to just target the memory?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-29T09:10:23+00:00Added an answer on May 29, 2026 at 9:10 am

    free would, factually speaking, be my best guess. However I don’t think you can do anything without invoking UB. How did you arrive at a requirement to invoke the destructor like that?

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