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Home/ Questions/Q 3595188
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 18, 20262026-05-18T19:49:09+00:00 2026-05-18T19:49:09+00:00

In the following code, it calls a virtual function foo via a pointer to

  • 0

In the following code, it calls a virtual function foo via a pointer to a derived object. Will this call go through the vtable or will it call B::foo directly?

If it goes via a vtable, what would be a C++ idiomatic way of making it call B::foo directly? I know that in this case I am always pointing to a B.

Class A
{
    public:
        virtual void foo() {}
};

class B : public A
{
    public:
        virtual void foo() {}
};


int main()
{
    B* b = new B();
    b->foo();
}
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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-18T19:49:10+00:00Added an answer on May 18, 2026 at 7:49 pm

    Yes, it will use the vtable (only non-virtual methods bypass the vtable). To call B::foo() on b directly, call b->B::foo().

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