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Home/ Questions/Q 1057061
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: May 16, 20262026-05-16T17:48:30+00:00 2026-05-16T17:48:30+00:00

Take note of the following C++ code: #include <iostream> using std::cout; int foo (const

  • 0

Take note of the following C++ code:

#include <iostream>
using std::cout;

int foo (const int);

int main ()
{
   cout << foo(3);
}

int foo (int a)
{
   a++;
   return a;
}

Notice that the prototype of foo() takes a const int and that the definition takes an int. This compile without any errors…

Why are there no compilation errors?

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1 Answer

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-05-16T17:48:31+00:00Added an answer on May 16, 2026 at 5:48 pm

    Because it doesn’t matter to the caller of the foo function whether foo modifies its copy of the variable or not.

    Specifically in the C++03 standard, the following 2 snippets explain exactly why:

    C++03 Section: 13.2-1

    Two function declarations of the same name refer to the same function if they are in the same scope and
    have equivalent parameter declarations (13.1).

    C++03 Section: 13.1-3

    Parameter declarations that differ only in the presence or absence of const and/or volatile are equivalent. Only the const and volatile type-specifiers at the outermost level of the parameter type specification are ignored in this fashion; const and volatile type-specifiers buried within a parameter type specification are significant and can be used to distinguish overloaded function declarations.

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