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Home/ Questions/Q 8757121
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Editorial Team
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Editorial Team
Asked: June 13, 20262026-06-13T14:13:44+00:00 2026-06-13T14:13:44+00:00

This is a follow-up question. In the previous question , @JohannesSchaub-litb said that the

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This is a follow-up question.

In the previous question, @JohannesSchaub-litb said that the following code is not fully standard-conformant:

class { int i; };  //unnamed-class definition. § 9/1 allows this!

and then he added,

while it is grammatically valid, it breaks the rule that such a class must declare at least one name into its enclosing scope.

I couldn’t really understand this. What name is he talking about?

Could anyone elaborate on this further (preferably quoting the Standard)?

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  1. Editorial Team
    Editorial Team
    2026-06-13T14:13:46+00:00Added an answer on June 13, 2026 at 2:13 pm

    Clause 9 of the standard allows class {public: int i;} (note the lack of a final semicolon) because this decl-specifier-seq for an unnamed class might be used in some other construct such as a typedef or a variable declaration. The problem with class {public: int i;}; (note that the final semicolon is now present) is that this class specification now becomes a declaration. This is an illegal declaration per clause 7, paragraph 3 of the standard:

    In such cases, and except for the declaration of an unnamed bit-field (9.6), the decl-specifier-seq shall introduce one or more names into the program, or shall redeclare a name introduced by a previous declaration.

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